I’m comparing a Barcelona condo with higher-yield options in cheaper Spanish markets. The Barcelona property has only a modest current yield, but employment and transport fundamentals look stronger, while the cheaper markets feel less liquid.
My concern is that “appreciation potential” can excuse almost any weak deal. I’m considering requiring a minimum net cash return before assigning value to future growth. I would calculate that after vacancy, management, maintenance reserves, insurance, property tax and financing. Would you use that rule, and what would you verify first?
My concern is that “appreciation potential” can excuse almost any weak deal. I’m considering requiring a minimum net cash return before assigning value to future growth. I would calculate that after vacancy, management, maintenance reserves, insurance, property tax and financing. Would you use that rule, and what would you verify first?