The 106-day marketing period is what makes me question the apparent 2.8% decline. I am reviewing a small group of Manchester multifamily properties asking between £895,400 and £1,343,000, but their condition varies enough to make the average unreliable.
My initial thought was that higher buyer financing costs were producing lower offers. The counterexample is stock that simply sits because buyers will not engage at all, especially where substantial work is needed or the seller has little urgency. I plan to separate reductions, withdrawals and completed sales, then compare only buildings within tighter neighbourhood and condition bands. Does that sound more useful than treating the whole sample as one market?
My initial thought was that higher buyer financing costs were producing lower offers. The counterexample is stock that simply sits because buyers will not engage at all, especially where substantial work is needed or the seller has little urgency. I plan to separate reductions, withdrawals and completed sales, then compare only buildings within tighter neighbourhood and condition bands. Does that sound more useful than treating the whole sample as one market?