If I mistake a change in listing mix for an 8.5% market rise, any pricing conclusion will be badly distorted. I’m looking at detached homes in Buenos Aires advertised from ARS 784,000,000 to ARS 1,176,000,000, with a snapshot showing about 58 days on market. Discounts also seem much wider where condition is poor.
My first thought was that tenancy duration might account for much of the variation, but that only seems relevant to homes sold with occupants. Before relying on it, I need to separate vacant and tenanted properties, condition, neighbourhood and house type. Has anyone seen recent completed transactions that can be compared with the asking-price history, including when reductions occurred and whether financing issues affected the outcome?
My first thought was that tenancy duration might account for much of the variation, but that only seems relevant to homes sold with occupants. Before relying on it, I need to separate vacant and tenanted properties, condition, neighbourhood and house type. Has anyone seen recent completed transactions that can be compared with the asking-price history, including when reductions occurred and whether financing issues affected the outcome?