Writing the fees beside the rate has changed which offer appears cheapest. I am a first-time buyer considering a London purchase around £436,800, with a quote of 4.60% fixed for two years. The lower headline figure does not remain the winner once the arrangement charge and loan-to-value band are applied.
For the two-year decision, should I compare lender fees and interest while showing capital repayment separately, then use the monthly instalment as an affordability check? If I am likely to stay with the deal for the full fix, that seems more relevant than a long-term APR. If I might move sooner, early-repayment charges and the exact portability conditions could decide it instead. I am trying not to make a favourable refinance after two years part of the base assumption.
For the two-year decision, should I compare lender fees and interest while showing capital repayment separately, then use the monthly instalment as an affordability check? If I am likely to stay with the deal for the full fix, that seems more relevant than a long-term APR. If I might move sooner, early-repayment charges and the exact portability conditions could decide it instead. I am trying not to make a favourable refinance after two years part of the base assumption.